Current Electricity Multiple Choice Questions

1.             Rate of flow of charge through the surface is known as:                 a)   Charge                                                                            b)   Electric current                         c)   Ampere                                                                           d)   Coulomb

2.             The SI unit of current is:                 a)   Volt                                                                                  b)   Coulomb                         c)   Ampere                                                                           d)   None of these

4.             Free electrons are:                 a)   Loosely bound                                                              b)   Tightly bound                         c)   Fixed                                                                                d)   None of these

5.             In liquids and gases, the current is due to the motion of:                 a)   Positive charges                                                             b)   Negative charges                         c)   Both positive and negative charges                           d)   None of these

6.             Conventional current (I) is due to the motion of:                 a)   Flow of positive charge                                                b)   Flow of negative charge                         c)   Flow of neutron                                                             d)   None of these

7.             The direction of conventional current in a circuit is:                 a)   From negative to positive                                            b)   From positive to negative                         c)   From negative to negative                                           d)   From positive to positive

8.             One advantage of conventional direction of current is that current flows from:                 a)   High potential to low potential                                   b)   Low potential to high potential                         c)   Negative potential to positive potential                    d)   None of these

9.             The average velocity gained by the electrons in a conductor placed in an electric field is called:                 a)   Variable velocity                                                           b)   Phase velocity                         c)   Drift velocity                                                                  d)   Instantaneous velocity

11.          Ampere is a current in which charges flow across any cross-section at the rate of:                 a)   2C/S                                                                                b)   3 CS-1                         c)   CS-1                                                                                  d)   CS-2

12.          Current per unit area is called:                 a)   Current density                                                              b)   Electric charge                         c)   Potential difference                                                      d)   Resistance

13.          The SI unit of current density is:                 a)   m2/A                                                                                b)   A/m2                         c)   m2A                                                                                  d)   mA2

14.          If one ampere current flows through 2m long conductor, the charge flow through this in one hour   will be:                 a)   2 C                                                                                   b)   120 C                         c)   3600 C                                                                            d)   7200 C

15.          The relation V = IR represents:                 a)   Coulomb’s law                                                              b)   Ohm’s law                         c)   Ampere law                                                                    d)   None of these

16.          “In an electrical circuit, the potential difference across a conductor is directly proportional to the    current flowing through it, provided the temperature of the conductor remains the same”. It is known         as:                 a)   Ampere’s law                                                                 b)   Coulomb’s law                         c)   Ohm’s law                                                                      d)   None of these

Gravitation

Gravitation

If the distance between two masses is halved the gravitational force is:

a) Halved b) Doubled c) 4 Times d) None

Newton’s law of Gravitation states that the force of attraction between the two bodies is inversely proportional to:

a) Product of their masses b) Square of the distance between them

c) Square of the distance between their centers d) Product of mass & distance between them


The gravitational force between two bodies is:

a) Impulsive b) Reactive

c) Repulsive d) Attractive


Newton’s law of Gravitation states that the force of attraction between two bodies is directly proportional to:

a) Product of mass and distance between them b) Square of the distance between them

c) Product of their masses d) Product of square of their masses


Which force is responsible for the motion of falling bodies and the motion of planets around the sun?

a) Nuclear force b) Gravitational force

c) Electrostatic force d) Electromagnetic force


If law of gravitation is written in vector form with negative sign, then gravitational force is written as

a) Attractive force b) Repulsive force

c) Negative force d) None of these


Mass per unit volume is called:

a) Torque b) Density

c) Viscosity d) None of these


The mean density of earth is:

a) 5462 kgm-3 b) 5462 gm-3

c) 5462 kgm3 d) None of these


The radius of earth is:

a) 6400 m b) 6400 km

c) 6400 cm d) 6400 dm


It is a measure of its reluctance to change its state of motion when force is applied:

a) Mass b) Inertial mass

c) Gravitational mass d) None of the above


When a body is lifted to twice earth’s radius above the surface of the earth, the value of g decreases by:

a) Two times b) Three times

c) Six times d) Nine times


Freely falling bodies are in a state of:

a) Rest b) Static equilibrium

c) Dynamic equilibrium d) Weightlessness


What is produced by spinning the spaceship around its own axis with a certain frequency which can provide centripetal force equal to the force of gravity at that point?

a) Weightlessness b) Artificial gravity

c) Vacuum d) None of the above


A bird resting on the floor of an air tight box which is being carried by a boy, starts flying. The boy will feel that the box is now:

a) Heavier in the beginning and lighter afterwards b) Lighter

c) Shows no change in weight d) Heavier afterwards


The minimum velocity required to go out from earth’s gravitational pull is called:

a) Terminal velocity b) Angular velocity

c) Drift velocity d) Escape velocity


The force of attraction acts along the:

a) Axis of rotation b) Line joining the interacting bodies

c) Line perpendicular to the interacting bodies d) None of these


A satellite is launched from earth into orbit. What happens to the mass & weight of the satellite?

Mass Weight Mass Weight

a) Decreases Decreases b) Decreases Stays constant

c) Stays constant Decreases d) Stays constant Stays constant


According to the law of Universal Gravitation:

Every body in the universe attracts every other body

The force of attraction is directly proportional to the product of their masses

The force of attraction is inversely proportional to the square of their distance

d) All of the above


The acceleration due to gravity on moon is 1/6th of that on earth, what will be the mass of the body on moon, if its mass on earth is m:

a) m/6 b) 6m

c) m d) m/3



Two masses 10 cm apart, attract each other with a force f Newtons. When 5 cm apart of these masses will attract each other with a force (in Newtons) of:

a) f/2 b) f/4

c) 4f d) 2f


If the earth were three times farther from the sun than it is now, the gravitational force exerted on earth by the sun will be:

a) Three times b) Nine times

c) One-ninth times d) One-third times


If the mass of the earth becomes four times large, the value of ‘g’ will:

a) Remain unchanged b) Becomes four times larger

c) Be doubled d) Become sixteen times larger


The gravitational acceleration is maximum on poles as compared to that on equator because:

Distance between poles and center of earth is less as compared to that between equator & center

Distance between poles and center of earth more as compared to that between equator and center

Mass of earth on poles is greater as compared to that on equator

d) Mass of earth on poles is less as compared to that on equator


An astronaut of weight mg is moving upwards in a rocket with acceleration 4g. His apparent weight in side that rocket will be:

a) zero b) mg

c) 3 mg d) 5 mg


When a lift is moving upward with a uniform velocity, the apparent weight of a body inside the lift will be:

a) Equal to its actual weight b) Less than the actual weight

c) More than the actual weight d) Zero


Free falling bodies:

a) Have maximum weight b) Have minimum weight

c) Have no weight d) Any weight


A boy standing in a lift falling freely under gravity releases a ball from his hand. As seen by him the ball:

a) Falls down b) Remains stationary

c) Goes up d) None of the above


A satellite moves in the circle orbit at the constant speed under the action of the gravitational force of a planet. The work done on the satellite in one revolution will have magnitude:

a) Zero b) Half of the gravitational pull of the planet

c) Equal to the gravitational pull of the planet d) Proportional to the diameter of the orbit


A body in satellite orbiting round the earth is weightless because:

It is essentially a freely falling body

It is far away from the earth to experience the pull of the earth

The moon attracts the body with a force equal to its weight

d) None of the above


Artificial gravity can be created in the space craft by:

a) Revolving it around the earth b) Spinning it around its own axis

c) Increasing its velocity d) Decreasing its velocity


When a man circles round the earth in a satellite, then:

His mass becomes zero but weight remains constant

His mass remains constant but weight becomes zero

Both mass and weight remain constant

d) Both mass and weight become zero


A space ship is coming towards earth from moon at a high speed. The speed of the air ship has to be reduced. The rocket is fired to lower its speed in which direction. The rocket should be fired:

a) In the direction towards the earth b) In the direction towards the moon

c) On the right side of space ship d) On the left side of space ship


The radius of earth 6 x 106 m. What is the acceleration of a meteor, when it is 8 x 106 m from the center of the earth?

a) 8 m/s2 b) 4 m/s2

c) 9.8 m/s2 d) None of above


A man whose weight is 900 N on the earth’s surface goes to a height, which is equal to twice the earth’s radius, above the surface of the earth, then the new weight of the man will be:

a) 900 N b) 225 N

c) 300 N d) 100 N


An object is taken from the earth to a planet where the value ‘g’ is 20 m/s2, if it is compared with value of ‘g’ earth, which of the following statement is true?

a) Weight at the planet will be greater b) Weight at the planet will be same

c) Mass at the planet will be greater d) Mass at the planet will be smaller


An air craft pulls out of a drive in a circular arc of radius 1000 m at speed 200 m/s, the apparent weight of the 80 kg pilot at the lowest point will be:

a) 3990 N b) 4264 N

c) 2920 N d) 3984 N

Electrostatics MCQs

Electrostatics MCQs

Pick Right options !


1. The branch of science which deals with study of _______ charges, is called electrostatics:

a) Rest b) Move

c) Simple d) None of these


2. Like charges _______ each other:

a) Attract b) Repel

c) Contract d) None of these


3. Unlike charges _______ each other:

a) Contract b) Directly

c) Attract d) Repel


4. A substance through which an electric current can pass, is called _______:

a) Conductor b) Charge

c) Electric d) None of these


5. The conductor is a substance which contains _______ electrons:

a) Close b) Open

c) Electric d) Free


6. The substance through which an electric current cannot pass, is called _______:

a) Insulator b) Conductor

c) Plastic d) Rubber


7. The insulator is a substance which does not contain _______ electrons:

a) Close b) Open

c) Free d) Pass


8. The force of attraction or repulsion between any two charges is directly proportional to the magnitudes of the charges and _______ proportional to the square of the distance between them:

a) Inversely b) Directly

c) Equal d) Conductor






9. The value of “K” is constant and it depends upon the _______ between the charges:

a) Medium b) Force

c) Direction d) None of these
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Physics MCQs

Physics MCQs

1.             The degree of hotness or coldness of an object is expressed in terms of:                 a)   Heat capacity                                                                                b)   Heat                 c)   Temperature                                                                                 d)   Heat energy

2.             Which of the following properties of matter is used in the construction of a thermometer:                 a)   Expansion of matter on heating                          b)   Change of color with temperature                 c)   Increase of resistance with rise of temperature                      d)   All of these

3.             Mercury is used in mercury-in-glass thermometer as a thermometric substance because:                 a)   It does not wet the capillary tube walls                    b)   It is opaque                  c)   Its expansion is uniform over a wide range of temperature                 d)   All of above

4.             Two fixed points used for the temperature scales are:                 a)   The temperature of freezing and boiling mercury                 b)   The temperature of melting ice and boiling water                 c)   The temperature of water at 0oC and 100oC       d)   None of these

5.             In liquid-in-glass thermometer, the thermometric property used is:                 a)   Thermal expansion                                                      b)   Color change on heating                 c)   Resistance change on heating                                    d)   None of these

6.             The lower and upper fixed points on Celsius (centigrade) scale are taken to be:                 a)   0o and 212o                                                                    b)   32o and 273o                         c)   0o and 100o                                                                     d)   None of these

7.             A Celsius (centigrade) degree is greater than a Fahrenheit degree by:                 a)   5/9                                                                                   b)   9/5                 c)   18/5                                                                                 d)   9/10

8.             The Centigrade and Fahrenheit scales have the same reading at:                 a)   40o                                                                                   b)   140o                 c)   -140o                                                                                d)   -40o

9.             The relationship between Celsius and Fahrenheit scales temperature is:                 a)   Fo = 9/5 Co - 32                                                              b)   Fo = 9/5 Co + 32                 c)   Co = 9/5 Fo + 32                                                            d)   None of these

10.          The temperature of a normal human body is 98.6 Fo. This temperature corresponds to:                 a)   20 Co                                                                               b)   30 Co                 c)   37 Co                                                                                d)   66.6 Co

11.          The temperature of normal human body is 37 Co. On Kelvin scale, it is equal to:                 a)   373 Ko                                                                             b)   273 Ko                 c)   310 Ko                                                                             d)   236 Ko

12.          One degree of centigrade scale is equal to:                 a)   1o of Fahrenheit                                                            b)   1.8o of Fahrenheit                         c)   32o of Fahrenheit                                                          d)   3o of Fahrenheit

13.          10 Co corresponds to:                 a)   273o K                                                                             b)   283o K                c)   263o  K                                                                             d)   100o K

14.          The temperature of absolute zero corresponds to:                 a)   -273 Co                                                                            b)   273 Co                  c)   0 Co                                                                                  d)   20 Co

15.          What temperature on Fahrenheit scale corresponds to absolute zero?                 a)   212o F                                                                              b)   32o F                 c)   -32o F                                                                               d)   -460o F

16.          One Calorie is equal to:                 a)   41.8 J                                                                               b)   4.18 J                c)   18.4 J                                                                               d)   4.35 J

17.          SI unit of heat energy is:                 a)   Calorie                                                                            b)   B.T.U.                 c)   Joule                                                                            d)   Kilo-Calorie

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GENETICS MCQs

GENETICS MCQs

1- A four-year-old boy came to your clinic with a history of seizures and

developmental delay. When you examined him you found that he was short

and has huge liver. The most likely diagnosis among the following conditions

is:

a. Pompe disease

b. Glycogen storage disease type I

c. Tyrosinemia type II

d. Phenylketonuria

e. Morquio syndrome

2- The parents of a 3-year-old boy were very concerned about their child's

cognitive ability. They also reported that he had abnormal behavior. However,

the child has never been admitted to the hospital. You sent a blood sample for

tandem mass spectrometry and the result was abnormal. Which of the

following therapeutic intervention is the best approach:

a. Dietary restriction

b. L-carnitine

c. Vitamin B12 injection

d. Enzyme replacement therapy

e. Sodium benzoate

3- The nursery called you to examine a newborn baby because of Down

syndrome features. Which of the following statements is true about this

syndrome?

a. Aneuploidy is the most common chromosomal finding

b. Nondisjunction occurs during mitosis in most cases

c. The meiotic error occurs in paternal gametes

d. Maternal serum testing is not a good prenatal screening method for

Down syndrome

e. Translocation Down syndrome is a milder form

4- Which one of the following diseases is included in the Saudi National

Newborn Screening Program:

a. Nonketotic hyperglycinemia

b. Zellweger syndrome

c. Biotinidase deficiency

d. Tyrosinemia

e. Very long chain acyl CoA dehydrogenase deficiency (VLCAD)

5- A two-year-old girl was referred to you for evaluation of wide wrests. She was

also noticed to have hepatomegaly. Her routine investigations revealed that

she had metabolic acidosis. The diagnostic testing for this condition is:

a. Urine analysis

b. Blood tandem MS

c. Bone profile

d. X-ray wrest

e. Blood gases

6- You have evaluated a 10-year-old boy with learning disability. The mother

told you that her sister had learning problems too. When you reviewed the

chart, you found an abnormal result of a triplet repeat expansion test. The most

likely diagnosis is:

a. Sotos syndrome

b. Fargile X syndrome

c. Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome

d. Simpson-Golabi syndrome

e. Seckel syndrome

7- You were covering the NICU when you received a call from the emergency

room physician telling you that he had just intubated a 10 day old neonate who

came in coma. When you got inside the room you were struck by a very

unusual smell. His mother told you that he was well until three days ago. She

also mentioned that she had a girl who died at one month of age of unknown

cause. After examining the baby, you quickly reviewed his CBC, blood gases,

and ammonia and all were normal. The best course of action is :

a. Wait for tandem MS result

b. Start antibiotic and observe for any improvement

c. Send urine sample for urgent organic acid analysis

d. Immediate dialysis

e. CSF analysis for glycine.

8- At a given locus, both parents have (Aa) genotype for a recessive trait. The

proportions of the genotypes in their children will be:

a. 1 AA: 2 Aa: 1 aa

b. 2 AA: 1 Aa: 1 aa

c. 1 AA: 1 Aa: 2 aa

d. 1 AA: 1 Aa: 1 aa

e. 2 AA: 2 Aa : 2 aa

9- A psychiatrist referred a 12-year-old boy to your clinic. You found that he had

been seen by ophthalmology too. On examination, you noticed that he was tall

and thin and had scoliosis. Which one of the following is a true statement

about this disorder?

a. Urine organic acid analysis is the best diagnostic approach

b. Tandem MS will show highly elevated amino acid

c. Some patients are vitamin B1 responsive

d. The inheritance pattern is mitochondrial

e. The disorder is included in the Saudi National Newborn Screening

Program

10- The National Laboratory for Newborn Screening notified you that your one

week patient has abnormal tandem MS with highly elevated

propionylcarnitine. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. Fatty acid oxidation defect

b. MSUD

c. Methylmalonic acidemia

d. Homocystinuria

e. Isovaleric acidemia

11- In X-linked recessive pedigrees:

a. Male to male transmission is characteristic

b. Males and females are equally affected

c. For an affected male, all his sons will be normal and all his daughters

will be affected

d. For a carrier mother, 25% of her sons will be normal

e. Heterozygous females may express the disease because of skewing X

inactivation

12- The mother of a 2-day-old boy brought him to the emergency room because of

poor feeding and vomiting. His CBC and serum electrolytes were normal.

Ammonia was 430 uM. What is the most appropriate test that you would

request?

a. Liver function tests

b. Blood gases

c. Plasma amino acids

d. Urine succinylacetone

e. Blood carnitine level

13- You intubated a 2-day old baby because of recurrent attacks of apnea and

seizures. You suspected a metabolic disorder, however tandem MS was

unremarkable. Among the following conditions, the most likely diagnosis is:

a. Nonketotic hyperglycinemuia

b. Propionic acidemia

c. MSUD

d. Argininosucsinic acidemia

e. Methylmalonic acidemia

14- There are about 3 billion bases in human DNA. Approximately what percent

of these bases actually code for genes?

a. 100%

b. 70-80%

c. 30-50%

d. 15-20%

e. 1-2%

15- You are assessing a neonate who presented to the emergency room with severe

metabolic acidosis. Urine analysis showed massive ketosis. Which of the

following medications you need to prescribe for the patient?

a. Arginine

b. Sodium benzoate

c. Sodium phenylbutyrate

d. Vitamin B12

e. Vitamin B6

16- In a child with deafness and alopecia, the laboratory work up reveals that he

has lactic acidosis. The most likely diagnosis is :

a. Ectodermal dysplasia

b. MELAS

c. Biotinidase deficiency

d. Vitamin D resistant rickets

e. Glycogen storage disease

17- Enzyme replacement therapy is available to which of the following metabolic

disorders:

a. Niemann-Pick disease

b. Maroteaux-Lamy syndrome

c. Phenylketonuria

d. Biotinidase deficiency

e. Glycogen storage disease type I

18- The NICU nurse informed you that she was not able to insert a nasogastric

tube for one of the babies who has congenital heart disease. When you

examined him, you detected a defect in the iris. What is the pattern of

inheritance of this condition?

a. X-linked recessive

b. Autosomal recessive

c. Mitochondrial

d. Multifactorial

e. Autosoaml dominant

19- How many conditions does the Saudi National Newborn Screening Program

screen for?

a. 6

b. 10

c. 16

d. 29

e. 2

20- You examined a 15-month-old boy who had developmental delay. You

noticed hypotonia and huge liver and spleen. When you reviewed his chart,

you found that had normal tandem MS, urine organic acid analysis, and lactic

acid. However, he had a bone marrow examination which was abnormal. Of

the following, what is the most appropriate diagnostic test?

a. Liver biopsy for histochemical staining

b. Nerve conduction velocity

c. Skin biopsy for enzyme assay

d. Echocardiogram

e. Muscle biopsy

21- While you are on call for the NICU, the chemistry laboratory calls you for an

abnormal ammonia level on 5-day-old neonate who is on mechanical

ventilation. The most appropriate treatment is:

a. Peritoneal dialysis

b. IV carnitine

c. PO sodium benzoate

d. Keep NPO

e. High dextrose in the IVF

22- Which of the following statement is true?

a. Lisch nodules are one of the diagnostic criteria for neurofibromatosis II

(NF II)

b. Bilateral acoustic neuromas are distinctive features of tuberous

sclerosis

c. Unilateral nevus involves the upper half of the face in Sturge-Weber

syndrome

d. Both parents are typically affected in children with neurofibromatosis I

e. The father of a girl with incontinenta pigmenti is usually affected

23- When you examined a one-year-old girl with developmental delay, you found

severe hypotonia and optic atrophy. She also had macrocephaly. The preferred

biochemical test is:

a. Urine organic acid

b. Tandem MS

c. Plasma amino acid

d. Hexosaminidase A level

e. VLCFA level

24- An apparently healthy neonate has abnormal newborn screening. The parents

tell you that they had another infant who was perfectly well before his sudden

death. Of the following, what is the most likely diagnosis:

a. CPS deficiency

b. Propionic acidemia

c. Medium chain acyl CoA dehydrogenase (MCAD) deficiency

d. Long QT syndrome

e. Autosomal recessive cardiomyopathy

25- A newborn baby developed convulsion. When you examined her, you detected

an abdominal wall defect. Of the following, the most likely diagnosis is?

a. Trisomy 18

b. Beckwith-Wiedmann syndrome

c. Trisomy 13

d. Zellweger syndrome

e. Cri-du chat syndrome

26- A newborn baby was found to have high forehead, epicanthal folds, and

profound hypotonia. His consanguineous parents informed you that they had

an infant who died at the age of 4 months with similar problem. The

biochemical defect is likely to be found in which of the following organelles?

a. Mitochondria

b. Golgi apparatus

c. Peroxisomes

d. Ribosomes

e. Lysosomes

27- Which of the following metabolic disorder/treatment matching is appropriate?

a. Homocystinuria and vitamin B6

b. MSUD and carnitine

c. Propionic acidemia and Coenzyme Q10

d. Biotinidase deficiency and riboflavin

e. Zellweger syndrome and fat restriction

28- Nonsyndromic deafness is characterized by:

a. Locus heterogeneity

b. A defect in one gene that causes the vast majority of cases

c. Mitochondrial inheritance in most families

d. Mental retardation

e. Blindness

29- You were consulted on a child with a metabolic disorder to provide your

opinion whether he is a candidate for bone marrow transplantation. In which

of the following diseases you would consider this treatment option?

a. Sanfilippo syndrome

b. X-linked adrenoleukodystrophy

c. Morquio syndrome

d. Neonatal adrenoleukodystrophy

e. VLCAD

30- A 2 year old girl presented with hepatosplenomegaly and developmental

delay. Her eye exam revealed cherry red macula. Of the following, what is the

most likely diagnosis?

a. Hurler syndrome

b. Krabbe disease

c. Glycogen storage disease

d. Tay-Sachs disease

e. Sandhoff disease

31- The mother of a one-month-old baby was concerned about yellowish

discoloration of his eyes and skin. You suspected a metabolic disorder. You

send urine analysis which was positive for reducing substances, however,

tandem MS was normal. Which of the following statement is true?

a. Tandem MS was normal because this particular disorder is not

included in the National Newborn Screening Program

b. Enzyme assay is the diagnostic test

c. The disorder does not cause cognitive delay

d. The jaundice is likely due to unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia

e. Cataract cannot be seen in the first week of life

32- Which of the following statements about sex chromosomes anomalies is true?

a. Turner syndrome is a euploidy disorder

b. 45, X is rarely found in spontaneous abortion

c. Patients with Klinefelter syndrome are usually fertile

d. 47, XXY males are typically mentally retarded

e. 47, XYY males may have behavioral problems

33- Which of the following statements is true in cases with mitochondrial

disorders?

a. Normal lactate excludes mitochondrial defect

b. Neuromuscular manifestations are very unusual

c. Variability in clinical presentation is characteristic

d. All mitochondrial disorders have mitochondrial pattern of inheritance

e. Deafness is rarely seen in patients with mitochondrial disorders

34- Which of the following statements is true?

a. Homocystinuria causes upward lens dislocation

b. Biotinidase deficiency is an incurable disease

c. Neuronal ceroid lipofuscinosis is a common white matter

neurodegenerative disease

d. Endotracheal intubation is risky in patients with MPS

e. CSF analysis is not essential to diagnose nonketotic hyperglycinemia

35- Which of the following diseases is inherited as autosomal dominant?

a. Ataxia telangiectasia

b. MELAS

c. Hunter syndrome

d. PKU

e. Familial hypercholesterolemia

36- 12-year-old boy was evaluated by cardiology for supravalvualr aortic stenosis.

The parents report that he is at special school but has a very friendly

personality. The most likely diagnosis is :

a. Prader-Willi syndrome

b. Fragile X syndrome

c. Williams syndrome

d. Angelman syndrome

e. Down syndrome

37- One of your neighbor's children has achondroplasia. Which of the following

features is true about this disease?

a. The parents of children with achonroplasia are short in most cases.

b. Mental retardation is observed in most patients

c. Quadriparesis is a known complication

d. In an affected child, the FGFR3 mutation is inherited form one of the

parents in most cases.

e. The trunk is short while the limbs are normal.

38- Which of the following statement is true?

a. Osteogenesis imperfecta is clinically homogenous

b. Crouzon syndrome causes severe syndactyly

c. Trisomy 18 is inherited form one of the parents

d. Mosaicism describes individuals with two different cell lines derived

from two zygotes

e. Malignancy is a well-known association with Fanconi anemia

39- Which of the following syndrome/feature matching is true?

a. Cri-du-chat deletion of chromosome 4

b. Alagille syndrome posterior embryotoxin

c. Parder-Willi syndrome deletion of the maternal 15q11

d. DiGeorge syndrome hypercalcemia

e. William syndrome hypocalemia

40- Which of the following is true about multifactorial disorders?

a. Genes play no role in their causation

b. In most cases of cancer, somatic and not germline gene defect is

detected

c. The risk of recurrence for another affected child is 25%

d. Presentation in adulthood is rare

e. No sex predilection is observed.

41- The parents of a 3 year old girl came to your clinic to evaluate their daughter

because she had been loosing her developmental skills. You noticed that she

had stereotypic hand movements. Which of the following is true about this

disease?

a. Males are commonly affected

b. It is inherited as X-linked recessive

c. Children are typically affected before 6 months of age

d. A gene has been identified to cause this disease

e. An affected child commonly inherits the mutation from her

Biochemistry MCQs with ANSWERS

BIOCHEMISTRY MCQs with Answers

1. A drug which prevents uric acid synthesis by inhibiting the enzyme xanthine oxidase is

(A)  Aspirin

(B)  Allopurinol

(C) Colchicine

(D) Probenecid

2. Which of the following is required for crystallization and storage of the hormone insulin?

(A)  Mn++

(B)  Mg++

(C) Ca++

(D) Zn++

3. Oxidation of which substance in the body yields the most calories

(A)  Glucose

(B)  Glycogen

(C) Protein

(D) Lipids

4. Milk is deficient in which vitamins?

(A)  Vitamin C

(B)  Vitamin A

(C) Vitamin B2

(D) Vitamin K

5. Milk is deficient of which mineral?

(A)  Phosphorus

(B)  Sodium

(C) Iron

(D) Potassium

6. Synthesis of prostaglandinsis is inhibited by

(A)  Aspirin

(B)  Arsenic

(C) Fluoride

(D) Cyanide

7. HDL is synthesized and secreted from

(A)  Pancreas

(B)  Liver

(C) Kidney

(D) Muscle

8. Which are the cholesterol esters that enter cells through the receptor-mediated endocytosis of lipoproteins hydrolyzed?

(A)  Endoplasmin reticulum

(B)  Lysosomes

(C) Plasma membrane receptor

(D) Mitochondria

9. Which of the following phospholipids is

localized to a greater extent in the outer

leaflet of the membrane lipid bilayer?

(A)  Choline phosphoglycerides

(B)  Ethanolamine phosphoglycerides

(C) Inositol phosphoglycerides

(D) Serine phosphoglycerides

10. All the following processes occur rapidly in the membrane lipid bilayer except

(A)  Flexing of fatty acyl chains

(B)  Lateral diffusion of phospholipids

(C) Transbilayer diffusion of phopholipids

(D) Rotation of phospholipids around their long axes

11. Which of the following statement is correct about membrane cholesterol?

(A)   The hydroxyl group is located near the centre of the lipid layer

(A)   Most of the cholesterol is in the form of a

(B)   cholesterol ester

(C)   The steroid nucleus form forms a rigid, planar

(D)  Structure into the extracellular fluid

12. Which one is the heaviest particulate component of the cell?

(A)   Nucleus (B) Mitochondria

(B)   Cytoplasm (D) Golgi apparatus

13. Which one is the largest particulate of the cytoplasm?

(A)   Lysosomes

(B)   Mitochondria

(C)   Golgi apparatus

(D)  Entoplasmic reticulum

14. The degradative Processess are categorized under the heading of

(A)   Anabolism (B) Catabolism

(B)   Metabolism (D) None of the above

15. The exchange of material takes place

(A)   Only by diffusion

(B)   Only by active transport

(C)   Only by pinocytosis

(D)  All of these

16. The average pH of Urine is

(A)   7.0 (B) 6.0

(B)   8.0 (D) 0.0

17. The pH of blood is 7.4 when the ratio between H2CO3 and NaHCO3 is

(A)   1 : 10 (B) 1 : 20

(B)   1 : 25 (C) 1 : 30

18. The phenomenon of osmosis is opposite to that of

(A)   Diffusion (B) Effusion

(B)   Affusion (D) Coagulation

19. The surface tension in intestinal lumen between fat droplets and aqueous medium is decreased by

(A)   Bile Salts (B) Bile acids

(B)   Conc. H2SO4 (D) Acetic acid

20. Which of the following is located in the mitochondria?

(A)   Cytochrome oxidase

(B)   Succinate dehydrogenase

(C)   Dihydrolipoyl dehydrogenase

(D)  All of these

21. The most active site of protein synthesis is the

(A)   Nucleus (B) Ribosome

(B)   Mitochondrion (D) Cell sap

22. The fatty acids can be transported into and out of mitochondria through

(A)   Active transport

(B)   Facilitated transfer

(C)   Non-facilitated transfer

(D)  None of these

23. Mitochondrial DNA is

(A)   Circular double stranded

(B)   Circular single stranded

(C)   Linear double helix

(D)  None of these

24. The absorption of intact protein from the gut in the foetal and newborn animals takes place by

(A)   Pinocytosis (B) Passive diffusion

(B)   Simple diffusion (D) Active transport

25. The cellular organelles called “suicide bags” are

(A)   Lysosomes (B) Ribosomes

(B)   Nucleolus (D) Golgi’s bodies

26. From the biological viewpoint, solutions can be grouped into

(A)   Isotonic solution

(B)   Hypotonic solutions

(C)   Hypertonic solution

(D)  All of these

27. Bulk transport across cell membrane is accomplished by

(A)   Phagocytosis (B) Pinocytosis

(B)   Extrusion (D) All of these

28. The ability of the cell membrane to act as a selective barrier depends upon

(A)   The lipid composition of the membrane

(B)   The pores which allows small molecules

(C)   The special mediated transport systems

(D)  All of these

29. Carrier protein can

(A)   Transport only one substance

(B)   Transport more than one substance

(C)   Exchange one substance to another

(D)  Perform all of these functions

30. A lipid bilayer is permeable to

(A)   Urea (B) Fructose

(B)   Glucose (D) Potassium

31. The Golgi complex

(A)   Synthesizes proteins

(B)   Produces ATP

(C)   Provides a pathway for transporting chemicals

(D)  Forms glycoproteins

32. The following points about microfilaments are true except

(A)   They form cytoskeleton with microtubules

(B)   They provide support and shape

(C)   They form intracellular conducting channels

(D)  They are involved in muscle cell contraction

33. The following substances are cell inclusions except

(A)   Melanin (B) Glycogen

(B)   Lipids (D) Centrosome

34. Fatty acids can be transported into and out of cell membrane by

(A)   Active transport (B) Facilitated transport

(B)   Diffusion (D) Osmosis

35. Enzymes catalyzing electron transport are present mainly in the

(A)   Ribosomes

(B)   Endoplasmic reticulum

(C)   Lysosomes

(D)  Inner mitochondrial membrane

36. Mature erythrocytes do not contain

(A)   Glycolytic enzymes(B) HMP shunt enzymes

(B)   Pyridine nucleotide(D) ATP

37. In mammalian cells rRNA is produced mainly in the

(A)   Endoplasmic reticulum

(B)   Ribosome

(C)   Nucleolus

(D)  Nucleus

38. Genetic information of nuclear DNA is transmitted to the site of protein synthesis by

(A)   rRNA (B) mRNA

(B)   tRNA (D) Polysomes

39. The power house of the cell is

(A)   Nucleus (B) Cell membrane

(B)   Mitochondria (D) Lysosomes

40. The digestive enzymes of cellular compounds are confined to

(A)   Lysosomes (B) Ribosomes

(B)   Peroxisomes (D) Polysomes

ANSWERS

1. B 2. D 3. D 4. A 5. C 6. A

7. B 8. B 9. A 10. C 11. C 12. A

13. B 14. B 15. D 16. B 17. B 18. A

19. A 20. D 21. B 22. B 23. A 24. A

25. A 26. D 27. D 28. D 29. D 30. A

31. D 32. C 33. D 34. B 35. D 36. C

37. C 38. D 39. C 40. A